A "Voice"

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 17 Apr 2002 4:31 pm

Will someone explain exactly what a "voice" is? Does a "higher voicing" mean you have changed octaves for the same chord?

Leroy

David Pennybaker · Post by **David Pennybaker** » 17 Apr 2002 8:13 pm

I'm sure somebody will correct me if I'm wrong, but here goes nothing:

The "voicing" of a chord refers to how the notes of the chord are played relative to each other.

For example, the C chord is composed of the notes C, E, and G.

If you play that in its standard voicing, you'd play a C note, with the E that's 4 half-steps above it, followed by the G that's exactly 3 half-steps above that.

You could also play those same E and G notes, but play the C note an octave higher. That's a different voicing.

Or, you could play the same G note, but play the C and E notes one octave above. That, too, is a different voicing.

For a 3-note chord, there are only 3 possible voicings: I, III, IV; III, IV, I; IV, I, III. [Edit: I think that's incorrect. If you move any ONE or TWO of the notes (but not all three) up or down an octave or more, you have changed the voicing].

If you move any of those voicings up or down an octave (or more), you haven't changed the voicing, you've just changed the octave. (And the timbre).

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The Unofficial Photographer of The Wilkinsons

[This message was edited by David Pennybaker on 17 April 2002 at 09:25 PM.]

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 17 Apr 2002 9:27 pm

Thx for your reply but I'll have to think on your reply for a while. Maybe this music course I've started will help.

Leroy

Greg Vincent · Post by **Greg Vincent** » 18 Apr 2002 11:20 am

David I think you meant "V" not "IV" in your answer above.

Also, those Roman numerals are usually used to represent chords within a key, not the notes within a chord. I usually see chords spelled with Arabic numerals (ex: 1,3,5 etc.).

I know you know what you're talking about, but I just didn't want this guy to get confused.

Hope this helps!

-GV [This message was edited by Greg Vincent on 18 April 2002 at 12:21 PM.]

Jim Cohen · Post by **Jim Cohen** » 18 Apr 2002 12:06 pm

I would say the "voicing" of a chord is a description of:

a) what order the notes are in from low to high (such as the 1-3-5, 1-5-3, 5-1-3, etc)

b) what octave each note of the chord is selected from (if close together it's called... tada!.. "close voicing"; if widely spread, often called "open voicing"); and

c) which notes of the chord are doubled (e.g., 1-3-5-1, or perhaps even left out, e.g., 1-5-1)

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The "Master of Acceptable Tone"
www.jimcohen.com

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 18 Apr 2002 3:27 pm

Jim,

Your "a)" response made it click. I understand the order the notes are played in so I understand now (sometimes, I am a little slow).

Thanks, to all.

L...

Earl Erb · Post by **Earl Erb** » 18 Apr 2002 3:36 pm

To expound on my friend Jim's description of chord voicing, also referred to as chord inversions.

Michael Garnett · Post by **Michael Garnett** » 19 Apr 2002 12:07 am

There is only one "Voice."

His proper name is Vern Gosdin.

Garnett

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 19 Apr 2002 7:22 am

Michael--you got that right!

David Pennybaker · Post by **David Pennybaker** » 19 Apr 2002 7:34 am

Woops -- I guess I was using the "new math". You know, the 1-3-4 being I chord. LOL.

Hmm, I've always used the roman numerals for notes within a chord, too. Obviously not very often in public, because nobody's ever correct me on that one. Thanks.

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The Unofficial Photographer of The Wilkinsons

Donny Hinson · Post by **Donny Hinson** » 20 Apr 2002 2:03 am

Actually David, there are 6 possible voicings for each 3-note chord...1-3-5, 1-5-3, 3-1-5, 3-5-1, 5-1-3, and 5-3-1, along with the octave(doubled) and skipped-note voicings that Jim already mentioned.

John Steele (deceased) · Post by **John Steele (deceased)** » 20 Apr 2002 7:17 am

But even chords with more than 3 notes can be "voiced" different ways.
-John

Earl Erb · Post by **Earl Erb** » 20 Apr 2002 11:36 am

Repeat after me...Chord Inversions.

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 20 Apr 2002 12:22 pm

Chord Inversions

Donny Hinson · Post by **Donny Hinson** » 20 Apr 2002 12:38 pm

That's true, John. Any chord can be inverted or revoiced. We're just using the 3-note examples for simplicity's sake.

Rick Schmidt · Post by **Rick Schmidt** » 20 Apr 2002 2:32 pm

Since nobody's brought this up yet...

I'm reasonably sure that the origin of the terms "voice" and "voicing" in music is due to most early western (as in European)music was written for human voices. Written choral
compositional techniques like conterpoint, figured bass, etc. eventually encompassed most intrumental composing as well.
The best early advice I think I ever got from a music teacher was to think of each note in the chord as a voice that is like a seperate melody leading to the next chord...as if there was a small choral group singing all the parts. Steel guitar is extremely well suited to that approach don't you think?

[This message was edited by Rick Schmidt on 20 April 2002 at 03:37 PM.]

John Steele (deceased) · Post by **John Steele (deceased)** » 20 Apr 2002 6:57 pm

I think two chords of the same octave and inversion can be "voiced" different ways.

<pre>
F alt F alt
1---------------
2---------------
3--8-------6(7--
4----------6(7--
5--8-------6----
6----------6(6--
7--8(8-----6----
8----------6----
9---------------
10-8(8----------
</pre>
Same note on top (inversion), same octave... different voicings. The word "inversions" becomes less important when you go beyond triads, don't ya think ? Just mho.

If asked, I'd simply describe a "voicing" as The particular group of notes you have chosen to express a chord.
-John[This message was edited by John Steele on 20 April 2002 at 08:03 PM.]

Earl Erb · Post by **Earl Erb** » 20 Apr 2002 9:40 pm

Leroy,thats very good.You get an extra gold star for paying attention.

Now for the rest of you.........

Donny Hinson · Post by **Donny Hinson** » 21 Apr 2002 3:26 am

That's a good definition, John.

Leroy Riggs · Post by **Leroy Riggs** » 21 Apr 2002 10:00 am

John,

Based on your "The particular group of notes you have chosen to express a chord" description, is a two string 'implied' chord also a different voice--for instance, 3 and 5 strings on fret 13 being used as a D chord while in G?

John Steele (deceased) · Post by **John Steele (deceased)** » 21 Apr 2002 10:10 am

Leroy,
In my opinion, yes...

But what do I know ?

-John